I am admittedly not the most educated person in this area (I wasn't 100% sure that "rule 10b5-1" was the rule that applied here), so I'd like to learn more. Can you give me an example of a reason you'd pre-arrange the sale of stock but not do it in accordance with Rule 10b5-1?
Arranging some other transaction (e.g. buying a yacht) in advance that would require cash, so the executive plans in advance a single sale to execute just ahead of the need for cash. If we go with the yacht purchase, perhaps in six months the builder needs final payment, so Mr. Executive arranges for a single sale of company stock a couple weeks before that date.
Maybe such a thing does indeed require amending The Plan, but I haven't seen anyone with expertise chime in. I'm just saying that logically, "pre-arranged" does not necessitate "working within Rule 10b5-1"
Not an expert either, but if such a thing was allowed, you could arrange to buy expensive stuff you want to have on a regular basis (I would assume this is not uncommon for CEOs) and then just agree orally with the seller to cancel the transactions when the stock is down, go through with it when the stock is up.
Yeah, I would assume that something like that would also be done within Rule 10b5-1, but that has hidden assumptions that I know nothing about, like that it's not just "the plan" but multiple plans, etc. Anyway, thanks.
